In a message dated 07/04/2001 2:38:47 PM Pacific Daylight Time, PHSEELY
writes:
<< In a message dated 07/02/2001 2:15:52 PM Pacific Daylight Time,
vernon.jenkins@virgin.net writes:
<< It seems to me that your 'stunningly impressive suggestion' of a name
having the value 616 cannot, of itself, lead the rational and unbiased
mind to voice the considered opinion that the verse was necessarily of
divine origin. >>
I am not sure what the "rational and unbiased mind" is, or even if one
exists. but let me try the same question with a different text:
In Psa 22:3 (4 Hebrew), David speaks of being saved "from my enemies." This
phrase is spelled waw, mem, nun, and a second word aleph, yod, beth, yod. In
I Sam 22:1 ff is the same Psalm, but in v. 4, this phrase is represented by
one word, so the nun is missing. One is the inspired original, the other is a
scribal change. So now the queston is: If a clever person by various
mathematical processes found a pattern of some kind (whether to do with pi,
e, triangles or whatever) which was stunningly impressive, but it was based
upon the scribal change rather than the inspired original, would that pattern
show that this Bible verse was of divine origin----even though it was not
based on the original letters inspired by God?
Sincerely,
Paul
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