Re: 2-adam, need Hebrew help.

Bill Hamilton (hamilton@predator.cs.gmr.com)
Fri, 1 Dec 1995 08:51:11 -0500

Denis writes
>
There is no
>article in Gen. 1:26, but it is present in Gen 1:27. Get yourself The
>NIV Interlinear Hebrew-English Old Testament and you can see it for
>yourself. You will see that in v.27 there is an "open square" looking
>character with a "T" looking character below it that is added to "Adam"
>(remember it is added from the right because in Hebrew we go from right to
>left)--that is the definite article. I have also confirmed this finding
>with the Massoretic Text (the standard Hebrew manuscript) and there is NO
>contention whatsoever with regard to these verses from a text criticism
>perspective.
>
>So Glenn, you and your friends are right.
>

Denis,

You've answered the question about the presence/absence of definite
articles, but I'm not convinced you've put the "two Adam" model to rest.
Most English translations use "man" or "mankind" in chapter 1. In chapter
2 they use "the man" and "the woman". Finally in 3:17 they begin referring
to "Adam" and "Eve". My question is: what textual clues lead the
translators to follow this progression? If the clues are really there,
then the two-Adam maodel seems viable to me. If the rendering is just
tradition, then the two Adam model becomes more problematic.

Bill Hamilton | Vehicle Systems Research
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