Re: Discontinuity Conference Report

From: D. F. Siemens, Jr. (dfsiemensjr@juno.com)
Date: Tue Aug 21 2001 - 18:42:44 EDT

  • Next message: gordon brown: "Re: Why YEC?"

    On Tue, 21 Aug 2001 14:25:38 -0600 (MDT) gordon brown
    <gbrown@euclid.Colorado.EDU> writes:
    >
    > > Having worked through every
    > occurrence of
    > > _yom_, I can say that always with a numeral (apart from the
    > problematic
    > > occurences in Genesis 1) it clearly means either a 24-hour period
    > or the
    > > daylight portion thereof.
    > >
    >
    > Dave,
    >
    > How is this clear in Hosea 6:2?
    >
    >
    > Gordon Brown

    From: "Stephen J. Krogh" <panterragroup@mindspring.com>
    Date: Tue, 21 Aug 2001 16:03:41 -0500

    This argument is inconclusive. The Bible, after all, has no other
    occasion
    to enumerate sequential epoch’s of time. This argument can be challenged
    on
    several counts. For one, it is true only for passages describing days of
    human activity rather than divine activity. More importantly, no rule of
    Hebrew grammar states that yom attached to an ordinal must always refer
    to
    24-hour days. Hosea 6:2 prophesies that “after two days He (God) will
    revive us (Isreal); on the third — ordinal — day, He will restore us.”
    For
    centuries, Bible commentators have noted that the “day” in this passage,
    where the ordinal is used , refers to a year, years, or a thousand years,
    or
    maybe more.

    Stephen J. Krogh, P.G.

    Oops! I should have said that there is no numeral plus _yom_ that needs
    an extended period. I did not say that there was a rule, just usage.
    Language is replete with matters that do not run with rules--unless one
    erects a rule for every idiom. I will add that the "evening-morning" is,
    to me, a strong indication that a restricted period is in view. If you
    can give me the _termini a quo et ad quem_ for Hosea 6:2, we can
    determine whether this applies to a longer period-- assuming that the
    language is not poetical and symbolic. I can add that, while there are
    places where the singular term may refer to a longer period, they do not
    seem to require more than 24 hours. The closest thing to an exception
    that I have found is in the phrase "day of the Lord." If that refers to
    the initial day rather than the entire period, it fits the pattern I am
    suggesting. All the published examples I have seen, though my reading is
    limited, where an extended period is required, involve one of the plural
    forms.

    I consider "days ... of divine activity" to be a red herring, especially
    since the order in Genesis requires Mark Twain's "spiral twist" to match
    the history of the universe and solar system, with further twisting to
    match the order of the second chapter. Psalm 90:4 and 2 Peter 3:8 do not,
    as naively argued, give us a measure of the divine day, but indicate
    God's timelessness. I other words, I consider process theology and its
    ilk as mistaken as the claim that human history will be 6000 years in
    length, with Christ's thousand-year rule matching the seventh day of
    rest. But this is getting off the topic.
    Dave



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