Re: Question for Clergy / resurrection/ escatology

Are you able to give an Biblical justification for this?

I can't think of any and have never come across such a view

Michael
----- Original Message -----
From: "jack syme" <drsyme@cablespeed.com>
To: "Don Nield" <d.nield@auckland.ac.nz>
Cc: <mrb22667@kansas.net>; <asa@calvin.edu>
Sent: Friday, April 21, 2006 3:20 AM
Subject: Re: Question for Clergy / resurrection/ escatology

> At some point during Christ's Parousia, his second coming, which was
> during the war between Rome and Israel, the Old Covenant age came to an
> end, the Law was destroyed, and the New Covenant was fully implemented.
> It was at this point that the change in personal eschatology was made.
>
> I dont know exactly when this change ocurred, but know only that it was
> related to the destruction of the temple. We dont have enough details
> about the history of that time. I imagine that at that moment things
> ocurred that were similar to the moment of Christ's death on Golgotha, an
> earthquake perhaps? A rift in the Temple? A sudden appearance of all of
> the dead? I cant be precise. We are not given this information.
>
> Of course this view of personal eschatology, that is, that there is no
> continuity between the physical body that dies, and the spiritual body
> that is raised, does not require a preterist viewpoint. It could be the
> case that after death believers become disembodied souls until Judgment
> day, and that this Judgement is yet future. I am not sure that a debate
> about whether or not preterism is true, is appropriate to this group, so I
> was just trying to explain the position more than prove it.
>
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Don Nield" <d.nield@auckland.ac.nz>
> To: "jack syme" <drsyme@cablespeed.com>
> Cc: <mrb22667@kansas.net>; <asa@calvin.edu>
> Sent: Thursday, April 20, 2006 9:41 PM
> Subject: Re: Question for Clergy / resurrection/ escatology
>
>
>> jack syme wrote:
>>
>>>
>>> As a preterist, I think the judgment and resurrection was in 70 AD. All
>>> of those that died prior to 70 AD have been judged, and raised or not.
>>> Since then, after death, believers are immediately resurrected into
>>> their spritual bodies.
>>
>> I find this statement very strange in a couple of l respects and I ask
>> for clarification. First, why 70AD? Second, what specific instant ? (If
>> this refers to the destruction of the temple in Jeruslaem by the Romans,
>> then what about those who died during that event?)
>> Don
>
>
Received on Fri Apr 21 03:13:33 2006