A short reply to Mike:
>>Webster's New World College Dictionary defines homosexuality as "sexual
desire for those of the same sex as oneself." According to this
definition,
which sounds valid to me, Romans 1:27 describes homosexuality perfectly.
>>
A desire and the acting on that desire are two different things
altogether.
A person may have a desire and choose to not act upon it. It's that
simple.
>>I would tend to agree that Paul, when writing 2 Timothy
3:16, probably did not foresee "the assembly of the 66 book canon two
centuries in the future," but we can be assured that God did!>>
If one assumes the omnipotence of God, then your claim follows. If one
does not -- if one holds (as I do) that God can and is sometines
surprised by what humans do, the claim may be challenged.
I understand your position to be the "orthodox" one.
>>To deny full inspiration of Scripture, therefore, is to set aside the
fundamental witness of Jesus Christ and the apostles>>
Many devout Christian scholars would disagree with that claim, of course.
See my notes on my website at
www.burgy.50megs.com/davis.htm
www.burgy.50megs.com
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Received on Wed Jun 23 15:49:47 2004
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