Re: On Pi and E

From: george murphy (gmurphy@raex.com)
Date: Sun Jul 08 2001 - 18:30:11 EDT

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    pruest@pop.dplanet.ch wrote:

    > george murphy wrote:
    > >
    > > pruest@pop.dplanet.ch wrote:
    > >
    > > > > "Iain Strachan" <iain@istrachan.clara.co.uk> wrote to <vernon.jenkins@virgin.net> (29 Jun 2001 01:07:06 +0100):
    > > >
    > > > >[snip]
    > > > > Other observations I have made subsequently involve evaluating "the =
    > > > > formula" on every verse in the Torah (some 5000 verses - with a computer
    > > > > program). I can confirm that the formula effectively computes a random =
    > > > > varible. The fractional part of the base 10 part of the logarithm of =
    > > > > the function gives a uniform distribution in the range 0 to 1, as one =
    > > > > would expect. Genesis 1:1 is the verse that is closest to pi, differing
    > > > > by 10^-5. If one selects an arbitrary other constant (say the square =
    > > > > root of two), then one normally finds that the closest one is around =
    > > > > 10^-4 distant, which is in accord with what one would expect with 5000 =
    > > > > data samples. The second closest verse to pi has a difference of 10^-4;
    > > > > so Gen 1:1 is an order of magnitude closer to pi than it.
    > > > >[snip]
    > >
    > > One point that seems to have been missed in all this is the fact that verse divisions were not part of the
    > > original Hebrew text of the OT or the Greek text of the NT. These divisions often seem quite arbitrary. Thus the
    > > numerical evaluations of "every verse" of torah, or the rest of scripture, aren't
    > > very meaningful.
    > > It might be argued that this criticism doesn't apply to Gen.1:1 and Jn.1:1 because those are complete
    > > sentences. But the sentence punctuation is also later and to some extent arbitrary. With Genesis, there has been an
    > > extensive debate among biblical scholars about whether v.1 should be read as a complete sentence which stands as a
    > > heading for the whole creation account or whether it should be read, as a number of translations do, "In the
    > > beginning, when god created the heavens and the earth, the earth was a formless void ..." (NRSV). I think Westermann
    > > has made a good case for the first & more traditional reading but a decision can't be made on grammatical or
    > > syntactic grounds alone.
    > > It is also quite common to read Jn.1:1 as a single sentence but we wouldn't have to. One could read it as
    > > "In the beginning was the Word. And the Word was with God and the Word was God."
    > > (This wouldn't be elegant Greek, but John isn't very elegant Greek anyway.) This corresponds to Phillips'
    > > paraphrase: "In the beginning God expressed himself. That personal expression, that word, was with God and was God,
    > > and he existed with God from the beginning."
    > > My major reason for considering this whole line of argument to be at best "mildly interesting" is, however,
    > > theological, and can be stated in 3 parts.
    > > 1) Getting pi from Gen.1:1 & e from Jn.1:1 yields little of theological significance. It's supposed to
    > > prove that the Bible is divinely inspired but at most it could prove that those 2 verses are inspired. & one could
    > > even argue from the fact that there isn't any similar mathematical correspondence for other parts of scripture that
    > > _only_ those verses are inspired.
    > > 2) The argument can be of value only for getting the attention of unbelievers and suggesting to them that
    > > the message of the Bible deserves some consideration. Has it done so? How many conversions have begun with this
    > > argument?
    > > 3) If anybody does take this message seriously, it's going to be very easy for them to get the idea that pi
    > > and e are the really deep level of scripture hidden below the surface details about the history of Israel & the
    > > church - just as in _Contact_ pi is hidden below the primes and Hitler and
    > > the plans for the transit device. & this would be disastrous theologically, for the deep meaning of scripture is
    > > Jesus Christ.
    > > Shalom,
    > > George
    > >
    > > George L. Murphy
    > > http://web.raex.com/~gmurphy/
    > > "The Science-Theology Dialogue"
    >
    > George,
    >
    > thank you for your detailed comment! I basically agree with it, although
    > I'll mention some reservations below. The reason I jumped in on this
    > thread is that I suspected some problems with the probability
    > calculations, which might lead Vernon Jenkins to reconsider the
    > significance of finding pi and e in these verses, apart from the
    > theological arguments (I agree with you that the most important
    > arguments are the theological ones). On the other hand, I am interested
    > in probability calculations for DNA and protein sequence languages, and
    > perhaps these probability calculations for linguistic sentences may be
    > relevant for those. But before asking the list for a reasoned judgment
    > on the correct way to arrive at a meaningful probability estimate (about
    > which I am not sure), I wanted to reproduce the pi and e approximations.
    > By the way, adding a iota to ARCHE in John 1:1 (a subscript to the eta
    > in the text), as suggested by Iain Strachan, gives a value for e correct
    > within 10^-5.
    >
    > According to Iain, one would expect the closest hit to pi among 5000
    > torah verses to be in the order of 10^-4, making the result of 10^-5
    > found with Gen.1:1 truly extraordinary. I was not convinced by this
    > reasoning, for three reasons: (a) an error (of a single measurement!) 10
    > times smaller than expected might easily be a coincidence, as the tails
    > of the Gaussian extend to infinity; (b) the value of pi was not given
    > beforehand as a hypothesis to be tested, but was found accidentally
    > after doing the calculation; (c) it is not known how many different
    > formulas were tried (the more different ones you try, the higher the
    > probability of hitting something "interesting").

                To my mind the only really significant thing to this point is the fact that the same formula can give pi & e
    for 2 verses which are related theologically and linguistically (since bereshith = en arche). If this is the only such
    pairing then I will just assume that it's just coincidence. If there are other OT - NT pairs which show something similar
    (& that leaves a good deal of leeway & needs some judicious placing of limits) then my interest level would be raised.
                                                                                            Shalom,
                                                                                            George

    George L. Murphy
    http://web.raex.com/~gmurphy/
    "The Science-Theology Dialogue"



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