Re: ID:philosophy or scientific theory?

From: glenn morton (mortongr@flash.net)
Date: Sat Mar 11 2000 - 07:56:04 EST

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    At 08:09 AM 3/11/00 -0500, George Murphy wrote:
    > Christ's atonement for sin is predicated upon sin.
    > While some NT texts concerning the work of Christ (specifically Rom.5 & I
    >Cor.15) speak of this in connection with Adam, others (e.g., Hebrews, I
    Peter) don't.
    >Most theories of the atonement can be expressed, some with minor
    modifications, without
    >the assumption that Gen.3 describes an historical fall of the first pair
    of humans.
    > Of course we both agree that Genesis 3 was written before the NT. But
    you seem
    >to be arguing that _logically_ the NT claim that Christ atoned for sin
    requires that
    >sin be understood as having originated historically as described in Gen.3,
    & thus that
    >we can conclude that if Christ really atoned for sin then Gen.3 must have
    really
    >happened that way. & that argument doesn't work.

    But neither does the argument work that Jesus paid a penalty for sin of
    indeterminant origin. How do I know that the sin atoned for by Christ was
    of Judaic theology or Hindu theology? Afterall, if the Judaic story of the
    origin of sin is not really what happened, then clearly one can question
    whose definition of sin is being atoned for. And that is very important. If
    sin is not defined as disobeying God's desires but is defined in some other
    way, then the entire edifice of Christian morality collapses like a house
    of cards. Maybe sin is not engaging in a particular ritual; maybe sin is
    not bowing 3 times before entering you house. The rejection of Genesis 3
    has much signficance to what is being atoned for. We simply can't pick and
    chose what we wish to accept in scripture without starting a new religion.
    >
    > Let me try to state _positively_ how one might make a connection between
    the
    >work of Christ & Gen.2-3, beginning with part of the gospel for this
    coming Sunday,
    >Mk.1:12-13.
    > "The Spirit immediately drove him out into the wilderness. And he was in
    the
    >wilderness forty days, tempted by Satan; and he was with the wild beasts;
    and angels
    >ministered to him."
    > Jesus was "with the wild beasts" as Adam was (Gen.2) & tempted as Adam &
    Eve
    >were (Gen.3). What seems to be happening here is that Jesus recapitulates
    the story of
    >Adam & Eve - except he does it right & doesn't yield to the temptation.
    > (& if that seems a stretch to anyone, note that the corresponding
    temptation
    >story in Mt. is quite obviously a recapitulation, but of the testing of
    Israel in the
    >wilderness - as is made clear by the citations from Dt.)
    > The primary historical event is the testing/temptation of Jesus. The
    >significance of that is described in terms of the Old Testament - the
    testing (&
    >failing) of Israel, the temptation (& failing) of Adam. The 2d is more
    global than the
    >1st - it refers to all humanity & not just Israel. The Matthaen theme of
    recapitulating
    >the testing of Israel is, however, more closely tied to the OT imagery in
    the location
    >& the nature of the tests. The Marcan connection with the Adam story is
    much looser -
    >no garden & no tree. The basic point - that Christ goes back to the very
    beginnings of
    >humanity to repair what went wrong - can be (& is here) expressed without
    any insistence
    >on the historical accuracy of Gen.3.

    So does this mean that we don't have to pay any attention at all to what
    the OT says? AFterall, if we don't like what one part says, we can
    subsume it into New TEstament events thus avoiding the need for the Old
    Testament altogether. Jesus atoned for sins but it has little to do with
    Adam and Eve. Indeed, neither of the two new testament temptation accounts
    mention the primal parents. So I gues we can dispense with them also, as a
    consequence of your views.

    And I notice that you mention:
    > The primary historical event is the testing/temptation of Jesus. The
    >significance of that is described in terms of the Old Testament - the
    testing (&
    >failing) of Israel, the temptation (& failing) of Adam.

    How can Adam fail if the event describing the failing didn't happen? Since
    Genesis 3 didn't happen, I can only conclude that Adam was successful
    because nothing happened at all with him, Eve and the snake. I can now see
    that theologians have really messed it up about Adam all these years. In
    fact they have slandered him. He didn't fail.

    To me, George this view is self-falsifying.
    glenn

    Foundation, Fall and Flood
    Adam, Apes and Anthropology
    http://www.flash.net/~mortongr/dmd.htm

    Lots of information on creation/evolution



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