Re: man = woman?

Moorad Alexanian (alexanian@uncwil.edu)
Fri, 01 Oct 1999 12:02:57 -0400

I tend to agree with you. Is the modern description of Scripture the
cloning of a woman ? Moorad

-----Original Message-----
From: Kamilla Ludwig <kamillal@worldnet.att.net>
To: Moorad Alexanian <alexanian@uncwil.edu>
Cc: asa@calvin.edu <asa@calvin.edu>
Date: Friday, October 01, 1999 11:21 AM
Subject: Re: man = woman?

>I'm looking forward to more knowledgeable answers, but it is my
understanding
>that the word translated man in chapter one is actually the Hebrew word for
>"human". Some of the newer translations reflect this in that they use
"human
>beings" or "humankind" in place of the archaic and misleading universal use
of
>"man". As for the difference in the two accounts, it seems that the
simplest
>explanation is that the second account is an expanded and detailed
explanation
>of the simple outline given in the first.
>
>Kamilla
>
>Moorad Alexanian wrote:
>
>> Can someone shed some light on these two (differing?) accounts.
>>
>> "God created man in His own image, in the image of God He created him;
male
>> and female He created them." Gen. 1:27.
>>
>> "The LORD God fashioned into a woman the rib which He had taken from the
>> man, and brought her to the man. " Gen. 2:22.
>>
>> Moorad
>
>
>