Re: man = woman?
Kamilla Ludwig (kamillal@worldnet.att.net)
Fri, 01 Oct 1999 09:20:50 -0600
I'm looking forward to more knowledgeable answers, but it is my understanding
that the word translated man in chapter one is actually the Hebrew word for
"human". Some of the newer translations reflect this in that they use "human
beings" or "humankind" in place of the archaic and misleading universal use of
"man". As for the difference in the two accounts, it seems that the simplest
explanation is that the second account is an expanded and detailed explanation
of the simple outline given in the first.
Kamilla
Moorad Alexanian wrote:
> Can someone shed some light on these two (differing?) accounts.
>
> "God created man in His own image, in the image of God He created him; male
> and female He created them." Gen. 1:27.
>
> "The LORD God fashioned into a woman the rib which He had taken from the
> man, and brought her to the man. " Gen. 2:22.
>
> Moorad