Re: After Fundamentalism

Glenn R. Morton (grmorton@waymark.net)
Thu, 28 May 1998 19:50:41 -0500

At 03:47 PM 5/28/98 -0400, Jim Bell wrote:
>As I said in my first post, your criteria are so fuzzy as to mean almost
>anything. Note that you have switched from rational UNDERSTANDING (of God's
>command...you conveniently ignored the cite to Gen. 1:28) to mere ability
>re: tool making and hunting. You've substituted your own concept here, and
>that's just not good argumentation.

No Actually I didn't ignore Genesis 1:28 which you cite as an evidence of
"1. rational understanding (Gen. 1:28ff.)"

I saw that Genesis 1:28 is talking about understanding Man's place in
nature, what he is supposed to eat etc. To refresh your memory:

1:28 And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and
multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion over
the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living
thing that moveth upon the earth.

Thus I chose an example where Homo erectus was exercising his God given
dominion over the animals. Obviously Homo erectus was rational enough to
follow the line or reasoning I laid out (anyone using a spear would have to
be able to follow that line of reasoning). If he was rational enough to
understand the spear reasoning, then he would have been rational enough to
understand God. So I respectfully submit that H. erectus has satisfied your
first criteria.

>>2. moral obedience (2:16-17)
>
>This one we can't find fossil evidence for but then I can't prove that the
>Egyptians from 4500 BC were morally obedient either. They left no evidence
>of moral obedience.>>
>
>There you go again. The argument is over evidence of capacity for moral
>obedience, not whether they actually lived up to it (the Bible gives us a
>clue about that!) But to have the capacity means you understand morality.

I didn't say what you are claiming. I don't care if the pre-dynastic
Egyptians were promiscusous and cruel or saintly Sammies. There is no
archeological evidence that you can cite that would show that they,
anatomically modern humans were capable of moral obedience. What is it? If
you reject an altar made by H. erectus because he didn't write the ten
commandments, then any altar made by the pre-dynastic Egyptions (prior to
3100 B.C.) must be rejected on the same basis.

>
>You're right that you are without evidence of such capacity in the fossil
>record, and are likely to remain so. So where do we have irrefutable
>evidence of moral capacity? The laws of Ur-Nammu, from around 2100 B.C.
>That's as far back as we can go.

So are you trying to say that moral obedience was non-existent prior to
2100 B.C.?
>
>>3. religious communion (3:3)
>
>Once again, you don't deal with the citation, nor the OBJECT of
>communion--a known God.
>
>I'm sorry, Glenn, but you haven't come close to dealing with the Henry
>criteria. Perhaps your happiness is mere delirium?

Jim there is a continuing line of female idols where were made by men in
Europe and environs from the Roman period back to 300,000 years ago. A
single tradition of manufacturing naked or partially clothed female
deities. Since we find these in modern times, I could easily claim that we
know the god they were worshipping back to that time. A couple of
references: E. O. James, The Cult of the Mother-Goddess, (New York: Barnes
and Noble, 1994) and Marija Gimbutas, The Language of the Goddess, (San
francisco, Harpercollins, 1989)

The two oldest female statues are the Golan Venus (300,000 years) and the
neanderthal Pseudovenus (ca. 75,000 years)
glenn

Adam, Apes and Anthropology
Foundation, Fall and Flood
& lots of creation/evolution information
http://www.isource.net/~grmorton/dmd.htm