Why should this be so? I can see your point when it is the duplication
of something that exists (like wine or fish circa 30AD)--- but why does that
logic apply to the "first man". Why should there _necessarily_ be a
"history" of something nearly like a man before that?
Walt
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Walt Hicks <whicks@ma.ultranet.com>
In any consistent theory, there must
exist true but not provable statements.
(Godel's Theorem)
You can only find the truth with logic
if you have already found the truth
without it. (G.K. Chesterton)
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