I've been out of the country for the last couple of weeks and was inundated
by messages from the reflector when I returned. Therefore, I've only loosly
followed this thread of discussion--but there is something I've noticed in
the comments by Russel and others that John picked up on here.
It seems to me that there are at least two reasons to explain humankind's
inability to fully abide by what we generally agree to be moral behavior.
As Russel has pointed out, one reason is that there is no objective standard
of morality; therefore, it is not surprising that different individuals
behave differently. However, another explanation is that, in fact, there is
an absolute standard of morality, but that humankind is inherently incapable
of consistently living up to that standard.
Therefore, from this, I conclude that it is insufficient to use behavorial
variability as "proof" that there is no absolute moral standard.
Steve
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Steven S. Clark, Ph.D . Phone: 608/263-9137
Associate Professor FAX: 608/263-4226
Dept. of Human Oncology and Email: ssclark@facstaff.wisc.edu
UW Comprehensive Cancer Center
CSC K4-432
600 Highland Ave.
Madison, WI 53792
"It is the glory of God to conceal a matter, but the glory of kings to
search out a matter." Proverbs
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