>And my ACTS of immorality (e.g. of killing Jews) are not a
>justification for the claim that my philosophy either does or does not
>provide an adequate basis for morality itself.
Why not? If one behaves morally according to the most commonly accepted
standards (i.e., not murdering, etc.) what does it matter by what means
one arrives at that behavior?
_____________________________________________________________
| Russell Stewart |
| http://www.rt66.com/diamond/ |
|_____________________________________________________________|
| Albuquerque, New Mexico | diamond@rt66.com |
|_____________________________|_______________________________|
2 + 2 = 5, for very large values of 2.