Pardon my possible ignorance of the subtleties involved here, but I keep seeing
this quote, and I keep thinking *it just ain't so* - perhaps someone can
explain what I am missing (I assume Dawkins hasn't made the basic mistake I am
about to accuse him of)
If one takes 100 dice, rolls them all at once, the probability of getting 100 x
sixes is pretty low (1/6 ^ 100). *Ah, but,* says Dawkins, *a SINGLE six is
much more likely - only 1/6 - THUS if we roll a single dice 100 times we are
more likely to get 100 x sixes.* Now, as I say, this just ain't so, but it
appears to me that this is exaclty what Dawkins is saying. What am I missing,
or is he indeed plain wrong?
In Him
Murray (Muzz) Hogg
muzhogg@ozemail.com.au