> You will note that I specified integers. You can keep going with division
> and get an infinity of rational numbers between each pair of integers and
> have a greater infinity than that of the integers. You can also have a
> larger number yet of irrational numbers. That's without counting
> imaginary numbers and the infinite number of modular arithmetics. If you
> want to go with Planck values, assign an integer to each, although an
> integral ordinal would probably be better. It will apply to what you
> assumed for your claim of a proof.
> Dave (ASA)
I agree with the point that the above is making, and so the technical
correction that I offer is not intended to detract from it. The number of
rational numbers between each pair of integers is the same order of
infinity as that of the integers. However the number of irrational numbers
is indeed larger.
Gordon Brown (ASA member)
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Received on Wed Oct 1 21:33:08 2008
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