I have been reading Robert Schneider's article in the current ASA magazine.
He overviews living conditions for mankind in the ancient world - they are
pretty awful - and suggests that there could be created humans vs. evolved
humans.
I like the premise. However, if the Y chromosome is the same in all current
races, does this mean that all evolved humans have died?
Years ago, a literallist preacher who was not a YEC said that in Genesis 1:1
the word 'was' could as easily be translated 'became' - The earth became
without form and void.
Also, Adam and Eve were told to repopulate the earth - this indicates a
previous population.
There is no Earth without form between the evolved humans and the created
humans according to Schneider's premise - however, all of these things do
give food for thought.
People frequently claim that things are mutually exclusive when they are
not.
I have often thought that both sides of a particular Biblical argument just
lacked imagination. I can frequently come up with a number of scenarios in
which they could both be correct.
Example: The Bible said that there could not be books enough to contain all
that Jesus said and did. Then, it is very likely that he did almost the same
thing on numerous occasions. 'Contradictions' could arise because one writer
was talking about one of these occasions and another writer was discussing a
different occasion. The discrepencies in chronology then would not be a
second contradiction, instead it would be confirming the fact that there
were two separate events.
Debbie Mann
AKA Joan Saunders, author of 'Doors of the Megdalines'
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Received on Wed Sep 27 09:23:30 2006
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