Adrian Teo wrote:
> Hello Louise,
>
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: Freeman, Louise Margaret [mailto:lfreeman@mbc.edu]
> > Sent: Sunday, May 12, 2002 5:53 PM
> > To: asa
> > Subject: RE: Is there a gay gene?
>
> > Question is, is a homosexual relationship that follows the
> > other scriptural
> > guidelines for heterosexual relationships (Patient, kind, not
> > jealous or slow
> > to anger, monogamous, chaste until marriage (tho we'd have to
> > let them marry
> > to enforce that rule, right? OK, chaste until they move to
> > Vermont and get a
> > civil union) etc.) in the category of "child molestation" or
> > "lefthandedness"
> > in terms of being against God's will?
> >
> > Louise, behavioral neuroendocrinologist who hasn't made up
> > her mind on this
> > issue yet.
>
> There are very clear Scripture passages that condemn homosexuality. I
> am well aware of a small number of scholars who have attempted to
> reinterpret these passsages, but it is clear that they are simply
> trying to fit Scripture into their own perspectives. Furthermore, in
> support of these passages is the natural law argument that
> homosexuality is against the nature of the human person, and is
> therefore quite different from lefthandedness.
..........................................................
A natural law argument has to take seriously the way nature is -
it cannot simply be a repristination of traditional beliefs. If there is
good reason to believe that some people are indeed of homosexual
orientation from birth (whether from strictly genetic causes or not) then
an argument that homosexual orientation is unnatural is severely
compromised.
Shalom,
George
George L. Murphy
http://web.raex.com/~gmurphy/
"The Science-Theology Interface"
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