Peter wrote: "It appears to me that the "not omnipotent" qualification
disqualifies P
from being biblical."
Why is this so? Certainly it is at odds with CONVENTIONAL Christian
thought, but in the light of the "Open Theism" debates, one ought not
call it "unbiblical." IMHO of course.
John Burgeson (Burgy)
http://www.burgy.50megs.com
(science/theology, quantum mechanics, baseball, ethics,
humor, cars, God's intervention into natural causation, etc.)
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