Not only does Psalm 148:4 mean that the waters above the heavens still
existed when the psalmist wrote, but Psalm 148:6 specifically says that
the Lord established them forever and ever.
Gordon Brown
Department of Mathematics
University of Colorado
Boulder, CO 80309-0395
On Sun, 2 Jul 2000, George Murphy wrote:
> Glenn -
> Thanks for posting this. A biblical point on the topic: Whitcomb & Morris of
> course refer to Gen.1:6-8 for the "waters above the firmament" but make no mention (as
> far as I can tell - it's not a book I've studied deeply) to Ps.148:4 which, if taken
> literally, means that the "waters above the heavens" were still there when the psalmist
> wrote - which must have been after the people of Israel (v.14) came into existence.
> Shalom,
> George
>
> George L. Murphy
> gmurphy@raex.com
> http://web.raex.com/~gmurphy/
>
>
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