> Why couldn't "In the
> beginning" have more to do with God's thought processes, or with the
> literary
> sequence of the revelation, or with yet something else, than with some
> concept
> of time within the universe that has been greatly refined
> scientifically since
> then (and which may turn out to just be an approximate concept anyway,
> without
> any truly fundamental status, when we find a good theory of quantum
> gravity)?
And what about the text author's (Moses?) time understanding? The
authors were inspired (as said), but God was not necessarily dictating
word by word in hebrew...
> Nevertheless, it is very hard to
> avoid temporal language, so one can hardly fault the Biblical writers
> for using
> temporal language even if in fact there is no absolute time and no
> absolute
> beginning to the universe that God created, or even if the no-boundary
> proposal
> or something like it is correct.
It's like that "Eternal times"... there are no eternal times.... there's
eternity...
In Christ,
Andre Bressan