Burgy wrote:
>8. In John 18:6, Jesus says to the Jews, "Ego Ami." He repeats that in
> vs 7. "I AM WHO I AM." a powerful way of claiming God-ship.
>
In that verse he is saying here I am to the soldiers. I would think that
John 8:58 would make a better case but for the other side. There Jesus
said, "Before Abraham was born, I am!" Why wouldn't Jesus simply quote
part of what God said to Moses in Hebrew? Wouldn't that be even a more
powerful statement? Exodus 3:14 from the Hebrew presumably written prior
to Greek influence is translated. "I am who I am". I would think to the
Jew this would be even more direct and threatening. The reaction of the
Jews-picking up stones to throw showed that they clearly understood.
>22. The word "sin" is usually the Greek term "hamartia," which means
>"missing the mark." A "hamartia" in archery is not just missing the
>bull's-eye, but missing the target altogether. Jesus seems to use it
>often in the sense of "pointlessness." Going in the wrong direction.
>Hence the word "repent, which means "to turn around."
>
If the Jews were speaking Greek in common discourse, this makes for a
quite different cultural context for Jesus. I always thought the Jews and
Samaritans tried to keep their own language and spoke in that when not
dealing with the Romans? Most other conquored peoples in the world try to
keep their own language.
>34. There is no word for the Greek term "blasphemy" in either Hebrew or
> Aramaic. In order to bring a charge of blasphemy against Jesus, the Jews
at the Jerusalem power center would have HAD to speak Greek!
>
I am surprised. So if the Hebrew language had no concept of blasphemy,
why were the Jews upset?
I think a possibly better argument for your position is that the Gospels
and letters by John James, Peter, and Jude were written in Greek.
Thanks for the info.
glenn
Foundation,Fall and Flood
http://members.gnn.com/GRMorton/dmd.htm