Re: "Science falsely so-called"

From: george murphy (gmurphy@raex.com)
Date: Tue Jul 31 2001 - 21:15:25 EDT

  • Next message: D. F. Siemens, Jr.: "Re: "Science falsely so-called""

    PHSEELY@aol.com wrote:

    > Allan wrote:
    >
    > << A question that has come up with a correspondent is whether there is any
    > possibility that Paul could have had science in mind when writing that. Was
    > there a different Greek word meaning "science" (to the limited extent that
    > science existed at the time) that would have been used had Paul meant that?
    > If so, it would seem to rule out nearly 100% any idea that Paul was warning
    > Timothy against falsehood specifically in the guise of science. Not that
    > that seems very likely anyway, but some people have had "science falsely
    > so-called" drilled into their heads for so many years that it is hard for
    > them to read it any other way. >>
    >
    > Where the NT Greek has the word gnoseos (long o's), the Vulgate in every case
    > but one has a form of scientia, and in the KJV in every case the translation
    > is "knowledge" except in 1 Tim 6:20. [the other instances are Luke 11:52;
    > Rom 2:20; 11:33; 15:14; I Cor 12:8; 2 Cor 2:14 (Vulgate has notitia); 4:6;
    > 10:5; Eph 3:19; Phil 3:8; Col 2:3]
    >
    > The KJV translation seems to go back to Tyndale, who also translates gnoseos
    > "knowledge" everywhere but in 1 Tim 6:20. This translation passed on to the
    > Cranmer's and Geneva Bibles, and presumably to the KJV although no one knows
    > for sure why they translated it that way. Tyndale seems to have had in mind
    > Roman Catholic scholastic theology when he used the word "science" as this is
    > the meaning he gives to 1 Tim 6:20 elsewhere (Supper of the Lord, 3:284).
    >
    > Since there is no contextual reason in 1 Tim 6:20 to change from "knowledge"
    > to "science" as a translation of gnoseos (nominative gnosis, long o); and, in
    > fact, proto-Gnostics, may well have been in view, "Knowledge" would have been
    > a better translation. At the same time we should recognize that "science" in
    > 1611 was a synonym for "knowledge."
    >
    > Ancient Greek does not have a word exclusively for "science" , but episteme
    > (last two e's are long, ie eta's) also meaning "knowledge", "understanding",
    > was in ancient times (and yet today) the normal word used to refer to
    > scientific understanding, or science. See
    > www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/lexindex?lookup=e)pisth/mh&lang=Greek
    >
    > There is no evidence that gnosis, gnoseos, was used to refer to science.
    >

    For what it's worth -
            In almost all the NT cases Paul lists, Luther translates gnoseos with
    Erkenntnis, "knowledge."
    (In Eph.3:19 the structure of his translation is a little different & he uses the
    related verb erkennen while in Rom.3:20 he does a similar thing but with the verb
    wissen, "to know", from which Wissenschaft, the German word used for "science" in
    a sense broader than modern English.)
            However, in I Tim.6:20 gnoseos is translated with Kunst, which means
    "art" or "skill." But it can also have the sense of "trick" or
    "sleight-of-hand." It may be these latter connotations which seemed most
    appropriate for the false "knowledge" spoken of in this verse.

    Shalom,

    George

    George L. Murphy
    http://web.raex.com/~gmurphy/
    "The Science-Theology Dialogue"



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